Bambistew
Well-known member
@npaden I'm not a statistician, and don't pretend to be one. I think you can calculate the odds similar to a rafle, which is by taking 1 minus the odds of not winning^ number of chances you applied. So it would be 1-((1-(170/1261))^6) = about 58%. Odds may be higher though, because after each one wins, they can't draw again and their chances are removed from the pile... and I'm not smart enough to figure that next step, and may not even be smart enough to figure out the first step.